Bugtraq mailing list archives

Re: [Full-disclosure] 0day: PDF pwns Windows


From: "Steven Adair" <steven () securityzone org>
Date: Fri, 21 Sep 2007 10:24:40 -0400 (EDT)

Not in my book.  I guess the people on this list are working off too many
different definitions of 0day.  0day to me is something for which there is
no patch/update at the time of the exploit being coded/used.  So if I code
an exploit for IE right now and they don't patch it until April September
2008, it's a 0day exploit for a year.  It's not necessarily new and it
doesn't have to be used maliciously.

If I code an exploit (for which there is no patch) and use it on my own
servers, does that mean it's not 0day?  I don't think so.  If my WordPress
blog gets owned by pwnpress, that's not 0day.. there's patches/updates for
everything on there.  It just makes me an idiot for not upgrading.  Now if
I get hit with some WP exploit that's not patched, then that's another
[0-day] story.

Steven
securityzone.org

Gadi Evron wrote:
Impressive vulnerability, new. Not a 0day.

Not to start an argument again, but fact is, people stop calling
everything a 0day unless it is, say WMF, ANI, etc. exploited in the
wild without being known.

I don't like the mis-use of this buzzword.
I respectfully disagree. By your definition, we have:

    * "new vulnerability" is just what it sounds like
    * "0day" is a "new vulnerability" that comes to public attention
      because someone used it maliciously

But then there is the important concept of the "private 0day", a new
vulnerability that a malicious person has but has not used yet.

Does it really matter how the new vulnerability came to light? Do you
really want to get into arguments about whether the person who
discovered it was malicious? Especially for "private 0days" where the
discoverer may be sitting on his discovery for some time, waiting for
the highest bider to buy his result. If he sells it to criminals, then
it becomes an 0day, and if he sells it to a vulnerability marketing
company, then it is something else.

I don't like this chain of logic. Whether a new vulnerability is an 0day
or not depends entirely too much on the disclosure process, with funky
race conditions in there.

Rather, I just treat "0day" as a synonym for "new vulnerability" and
don't give a hoot about the alleged intentions of whoever discovered it.
What makes it an "0" day is that whoever is announcing it is first to
announce it in public. You could only invalidate the 0day claim by
showing that the same vulnerability had previously been disclosed by
someone else.

Crispin

--
Crispin Cowan, Ph.D.               http://crispincowan.com/~crispin/
Director of Software Engineering   http://novell.com
      AppArmor Chat: irc.oftc.net/#apparmor


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