Re: OT: Royalty talk

["Brian Loe" <knobdy () gmail com>]

On 5/7/07, David Harley <david.a.harley () gmail com> wrote:

> > My usual go-to-guy for all things Royal is away and I'm
> > curious, why is the English Queen married to a Prince?
> > Doesn't he become a King when he marries a Queen?
>
> I guess that depends on where they are. I'm even less interested in other
> Royal Families than in this one. But in the UK, the right of succession is
> determined by descent and by several statutes. I think the gist of it is
> that only Protestant descendants of the House of Hanover are eligible, and
> it's rather unusual for a spouse to be a member of the same Royal Family.
> (Phillip, just to confuse things, is a member of the Greek and Danish Royal
> families, and was formerly a Prince in his own right, but gave up those
> titles before his marriage.) The Queen Mum and Diana were both members of
> the aristocracy, but not of the Royal family.
>
> Any questions? Please direct them to Dr Solly. My brain is starting to hurt.
> :-)

This makes it even more interesting to me - and especially so now that
my wife and I are hooked on that "Tutors" show on Showtime. In it, the
queen is The Queen even though she was only a Spanish princess before
marrying The King of England (good ol' Henry VIII). Also, this Henry
was a Tudor and wasn't he the one that formed the Church of England?

Does this perhaps go back to the original "royal families" of Europe
(King of England being a cousin of the Kind of France and all that) -
you would need to come from one of those families to marry and become
Queen as opposed to being born of a "made" Lord or whatever?

Going to have to go read up on him after all - the tv show is just
entertainment...Anne Boleyn (sp?) is even attractive where as I
thought she was supposed to be quite ugly (but perhaps that was
because the English People loved Catherine so much?).
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